I hope maybe that clarifies it for you? Feel free to email me directly if you like or comment below. randy at ebibleanswers dot com

As for your second question… ask what Biblical Hermeneutical principle does it follow to say a parable makes something literal? It almost does seem logical to say that a parable with real names would be literal but without any Biblical basis (and there is none) it is supposition and must be thrown out. When the Bible repeatedly says that the dead know nothing, that they sleep, that they await the resurrection, to take a parable and state emphatically that just because it uses real names it therefore overrules what the rest of the Bible says on the state of the dead, makes no Biblical sense.

On the other hand could there be another possible reason why the name Lazarus is given? Think about it, the rich man is not given a name… we can assume either to hide his identity or because it is not as important to know. Secondly, the whole point of the parable is explained at the end to be “if they heed not Moses and the prophets… they would not be persuaded though one rose from the dead” so it kind of rules out using the parable as a pro-life-after-death support text.

Consider this… Jesus was talking to the Pharisees and Saducees mainly at this point who CLAIMED to believe Moses and the prophets but Jesus said “these are they which speak of me” so they claimed to believe but actually ignored that Jesus was the fulfillment of Moses and the prophets. The prophecies all fulfilled in Christ and they totally ignored it… so consider this. What if Jesus used the parable of the rich man and Lazarus to drive home a point about these Pharisees. So we have a parable which is being told to the pharisees (Luke 16:14) and the purpose is explained in the end (Luke 16:31) to be “If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead.”

The question that begs to be asked is this, was a man by the name of Lazarus raised from the dead? The interesting answer is yes, only a short time after Jesus told the parable. And many would yell coincidence, merely coincidence but if you actually read the parable you find it is not coincidence. Many commentators believe that the rich man represents Israel… the rich man is clothed in purple. Purple in the Bible represents royalty and holyness. The Bible says Israel was set aside by God as His “holy people”. The rich man has bread to his full… bread in the Bible represents the word of God. Israel had been given prophet after prophet and revelation after revelation… they were led by God Himself out of Egypt by a pillar of cloud and yet instead of being humble they prided themselves as if it was something they deserved.

There are literally so many things to glean from this parable if you really look deep… therefore I believe this parable was given to warn Israel that they needed to shape up and also to give the Pharisees another chance so when they saw a literal Lazarus resurrected they could link the parable. Whether you accept that view or not doesn’t matter… what does matter is this, you cannot use a parable to disprove that which the Bible has already established… and unfortunately many pastors do that very thing.

One last point on that… you may be wondering why Abraham is named. This is actually because of the beliefs of the Pharisees. Josephus a Jewish historian who lived a short time after Christ states in his works that the Pharisees created the parable Jesus told. Most people think Jesus made it up… He did not. However Jesus changed it. The Pharisees version, the rich man went to heaven and the poor man went to hell. This was the way Israelites were brought up… you can see this train of thought in Luke 18:25. Jesus states tat it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to be saved. Then the disciples answer incredulously “who then can be saved” – for the israelite riches meant divine favor. So Jesus turned the parable around and sent the rich man to hell (figuratively) because he was proud and the poor man who “desire to be fed” to the bosom of Abraham. (See Matthew 8:11 for the connection)

First, I want to answer the question about 2 Corinthians 5:6-8. Basically what this passage means is that so long as we’re in this present body, we cannot dwell with God and that’s because “flesh and blood cannot inherit the Kingdom of God” (1 Corinthians 15:50). We require that glorified body that Christ has to inherit such majesty. But some other helpful passages include John 3:13 which states that “No one has ever gone into heaven excpet theone who came from heaven- the Son of Man.” Funny how close that is to John 3:16, yet it is often the most overlooked verse. I also have Psalm 115:16-17 which says, “The highest heavens belong to the Lord, but the earth he has given to mankind. It is not the dead who praise the Lord, those who go down to the place of silence;” thus indicating that heaven belongs to God and God alone but earth he has graciously given to us. Also, the dead do not speak when they die. They are silent. I’ll email you the rest, friend.

Peace in Christ

Here is the issue… there is a conflict in opinion on how the Bible was inspired. Some believe it was inspired word by word, this is not so. If it were all the gospels would read the same but they don’t, they vary and in fact some gospels leave out parts others fill in. Parts of the Bible were inspired word by word such as many rebukes given by prophets to Israel, the ten commandments, etc etc. But the vast majority was inspired as thoughts to be written down in the words of the men of God. We find this is the case with John in Revelation 1:19. He wrote what he saw… in His own words.

Carol, I totally agree with you, if the only basis for the article was on Luke 23:43 and a grammatical debate I would say you have a totally valid point and would definitely side with you. But in the article I posted verse after verse after verse stating we don’t go to heaven when we die, then Jesus Himself said He did not go to heaven when He died. Peter in Acts says that David didn’t go to heaven at death even though he is saved. So the issue is not grammar, I was just explaining why the comma was placed where it was, not really using it even as a argument in defense of death as a sleep.

Hopefully that clarifies??? I am more than open to hearing you explain where I am wrong, I am not arrogant enough to believe I can’t err… but I believe that the evidence in the scripture is overwhelmingly in favor of sleep at death.

God inspired the writers, that is those who wrote the bible, John, Mark, Matthew, Moses, David etc etc with what to write… they then wrote it in their own words… however written in their own words it was and still is the inspired word of God. THe punctuation however is not inspired… it was added and greatly enhances our reading of the Bible today but to believe a concept that is unbiblical due to one text that is taken out of context because of a miss-placed comma by a translator is not the way the Bible is to be taken. The Bible teaches “line upon line” not the idea that we base theology on one verse…

But even considering that the punctuation was added by translators and was not in the original greek (you can read about the original ancient greek here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Greek) that does not prove that the original was not written with the contention that Jesus would see the thief in paradise that day.
So you do pose a good question that deserves more of an answer then the above. And here it is.

Jesus did not ascend to heaven that day… the Bible says in John 20:17 that He had not ascended to heaven on Sunday… which was after His resurrection

“Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.”

If Jesus did not ascend to paradise then He did not meet the thief there… Jesus never promised the thief He would meet Him THAT day in paradise… instead He was emphasizing that even though hanging on that cross He did not look like a King that day He was promising that the thief would one day be with Him in paradise.

The truth of the matter is that everything proves this… the fact that Jesus on Sunday after His resurrection had not yet ascended to heaven. The fact that the Bible teaches that death is a sleep and that the dead do not burn in hell or goto heaven at death. The Bible says that Jesus is coming soon and that His reward is with Him… the idea that people are sitting on the edge of a cloud or being cooked by Satan in hell today is a pagan idea and has no basis on Scripture…

That is a topic for another discussion but I think I have given enough evidence that Jesus did not go with the thief to paradise upon death… thereby corresponding with the rest of scripture.

If you have any other questions or comments email me or reply.

God Bless, Randy

em: randy{@}ebibleanswerson{dot}com